An Issue Concerning the 2 different Speeds of Light

It is well known that the speed of light is moving at a constant rate c. Propagating in vacuum at 299 792 458 meters per second. Practically written 3E8 or 3^8. By flashing a light in a dark room the light waves will spread out and expand from the source like a bubble. Just like rings in the water.

When something is dropped into the pond, the waves will start with highest difference between the peak and valley of the waveperiod. When the waves expand, that is when the radius increase from the center, the wavespeaks and valleys will diminish with the increased radius. Because the energy is absorbed into more molecules and the energy is spread over a larger area.

The surface of the "Light Bubble" that is a 3D version of the "rings in water" that is a 2D disc visualisation described above. The Light Bubble is containing the total amount of energy from its creation and is equally as the water wave spread over a larger area as the "membrane of the sphere" is increased with the radius. When the surface area increase the membrane thickness wall will be thinner.

If the match is lit out, the light will vanish. Light is absorbed by the materials it encounter, and light energy either creates a reflecton that we know is an electron valence shell bounce : a visible colour. Or it can be heat, the nucleus is activated. Light can be refracted that is equal to altering its wavelenght, or it can be mirrored. This is however not the topic. The light is absorbed into the atom or molecule. Light does not linger in the room. What happens to a un absorbed light wave in space ?

When I want to compare the propagation speed constant "c" and the Hertz I can use this formula.

Lambda wavelenght in meter = c (Lightspeed) / f (Hertz)
Lambda = 299 792 458 propagation / 299 792 458 Hertz = 1 meter wavelenght.

That is a 1:1 relation between the velocity and the vibration in Hertz.
What is Hertz ?
Hertz is Cycles Per Second CPS.
So 1 Hertz is 1 oscillation of, for instance a Electromagnetic Generator.

The generator wheel has 2 magnets on the Rotor and 2 Stator coils to pick up the magnetic projection from the rotating wheel. If the wheel moves around 1 round per second, equals the production of 1 Hertz in Electromagnetic wave compression onto the coils. If I have the Alternator or Electromagnetic generator mounted on a hinge and spin it 1 round per second the wheel will spin 1 Hertz. The wheel circumference is 1 meter. If I remove the wheel from the hinge and let the wheel roll down the street, how fast will it go ?

Converting Meter per Second into Kilometer per Hour
1m / s = (1m/1000) / (1/60 ^2) = 3.6 km / Hour

If I spin the Alternator wheel at 3 Gigahertz c lightspeed constant.
And roll the wheel down the street. How fast will go ?

(3*10^8m / 1000) / (1 / 60^2) = 300000 / 0.0002777 = 1080 000 000 Kilometer per Hour.

At 3 GigaHertz the propagation in c lightspeed is the same as 3 Giga Hertz. That is in my understanding a 1:1 relationship between propagation "c" and vibration "Hz". That would mean by squeezing a tighter wavelenght the Hertz is made "faster than Lightspeed". A computer therefore operating at 3.8 GHz is therefore "latching transistors" faster than lightspeed. Now if light vibration in "Hz" is faster than the velocity in "c". it is mechanically impossible to construct light . Yet Hertz vibrations is possible into cosmic rays 10^24 !

Light speed is "only" at 3*10^8. Now what is the Hertz of visible light ? Everybody says that the speed of light c constant can not be exeeded . Visible light is very much faster than 3 GigaHertz. Light Colours is in incredible 10^15 = 1 000 000 000 000 000 000 . 15 zeros after 1. Ironically this implies that Lights colours in Hertz vibrations is 1 Million times faster than the speed of light. Light is 1 million times faster than itself.

Because both Hertz and c constant are velocities. they can be compared. Constant c is Meter per second, and Hertz is Cycles or rotations per second. At 3GigaHertz the velocity of the generator or oscillator is the same as the propagation, as I understand it. When the Hertz is doubled the velocity of the oscillator is the double the speed of propagation. At 6 Giga hertz the Oscillator produce a vibration that is double as fast as the lightspeed propagation c.

How can that be ? Light has therefore 2 velocities. 1 in c constant propagation, and another in Hertz vibrations. The Hertz is not in lenght but on the cross of the motion. The key to "over lightspeed" is the go with the colour of Hertzian vibration, not with c constant. Hertz, CPS cycles per secon, or RPS Rouds per second is understood to be many million times faster than lightspeed. It has no propagation limits !
That is something to ponder on !

I have a final question and that is. How can Light be considered an Electromagnetic unit, when it has no field lines ? Neither light nor laser is not magnitizable. holding a magnet close to a light bulb, does not affect the light in any way nor the magnet. The only way light rays can induce or produce electric current is by photo volt and by shining light onto a metallic plate The light frequency removes electrons from the metal. the metal becomes "ionic".  Providing the circuit with electrons from a salt water electrolyte, will give a measurable Ampere current. This was expermineted by Bequerell in 1840.

If light is in the EM spectrum, holding a magnet in the room sould absorbe the light, or inflict on the field lines now does it? No it doesnt, so why is light in the Electromagnetic Domain, when its not magnetic ?  Light has a vibration, measured in Hertz and move at the same velocity as energy compression of radio waves or AC in wires, subtracting the molecular Resistance or Impedance. But it is not affected by magnets?

Considering the Cathode Ray tube that has a electron beam that is electromagnetic in its nature. Because the beam is consisting of the subatomic particle Electron - that is Negative compared to the Nucleus UUD that is considered a Ionic positve charge.

On a closer inspection there is the Faraday Rotation. That alters the phase of light by induction. And as I understand that phenomena the light ray is passed through a dielectric medium. the medium is then induced, the light ray is then altered. how can I know that the Dielectric is not being electrostatically polarized and therefore changing the light ray. If the dielectric medium is removed, the induction does not affect the light ray at all ?

the Electro Static induction. having a isulation material where the electrons are tightly connected to the atoms, and not allowed to conduct or pass any Amperic current to the next molecule. the electrons can slide over the molecular surface, due to induction or by approaching the insulator with + charge. The positive charge will attract the e- electrons over to one side of the dielectric half of the molecule, Polarizing the molecule. Usually a molecule or atome is "polarized by being + in the core and electron . around it. by inducing it the electrons are motivated to one side of the molecule. Exposing the nucleus on the other side the dielectric becomes a Dipole. The geometry the light ray shines through is in other words altered. When the light shines on that polarized molecule the light wave is altered from initial emission characteristic. By removing the material. Induction alone can not magnetize light.

If light is not in the EM spectrum because it has no field lines, then what is it ?

K.H.O.

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